post-money

In the company A&B example, you're calculating the post-money valuation required to maintain your equity as a percent...

So this means 1.5M was the post-money valuation, correct?

'Ten on thirty' means $10 million invested at a $30 million pre-money valuation, with a post-money valuation of $40 million.

We will try to do this for every company in every round with a post-money valuation of $250 million or less.

If the post-money valuation grows from 50 to 60 million after taking in 20mm in new money, the founders get diluted.

Let's say that you took a series A with a 5M post-money valuation.

The main problem I see just eyeballing the numbers is that the ratio of the funds raised in each round to the post-money valuation averages around 1:6 to 1:8.

The pro-rata provision is only for raises of $100M or more post-money.

Meaning: they have not consummated a financing with a post-money valuation that exceeds $1,000,000,000.

Notes don't convert on a pre-money or post-money basis.

The general premise still holds though - As long as the pre-money in a round exceeds the post-money in the prior one, the owners are worth more.

$10 million on a valuation of $30 million, which would then give you a new post-money valuation of $40 million.

Warp drive isn’t coming any time soon, if ever, he explained, but wealthy retirees today already live an essentially post-money existence, “traveling and exploring and deepening their understanding of the world and being generally happy.” They acknowledge that the technology won't be there, but a post-scarcity economy might.

> Peter, is stoked that he is getting his $1 million investment converted into roughly 20% Since the valuation was > 6.25m his valuation was capped at $5m, whereas the investors who are investing got a valuation of $40m "pre-money" or $50m "post-money" which are much less favorable terms than what Peter invested at.

Post-money valuation/total outstanding shares is technically the paper-worth of your options or shares (and you can subtract the 409A valuation to get the current expected profit per share).

Post-money valuation of the previous round (can't be calculated by 409A since that's different, but rule of thumb is that 409A valuation X outstanding shares x 5 ~= last round valuation).